“My Lord and My God”

//“My Lord and My God”

Stumper Questions for Jehovah’s Witnesses, #33

In Jn 20:28, Thomas refers to Jesus in Greek as “Ho kyrios moy kai ho theos moy”. This translates literally as “the Lord of me and THE God of me”. Why does Jesus, in Jn 20:29, affirm Thomas for having come to this realization? If Jesus really wasn’t the Lord and THE God of Thomas, why didn’t Jesus correct him for making either a false assumption or a blasphemous statement?

Trinitarians are confronted with a dilemma. While it is true that the apostle Thomas exclaimed before the resurrected Jesus — “My Lord and my God” — in the very same chapter of John Jesus used the exact same expression when he said to Mary: “Stop clinging to me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father. But go to my brothers and say to them, ‘I am ascending to my Father and your Father and to my God and your God.’”

Literally Jesus said “the God of me and the God of you.”

Without doubt Mary obeyed Jesus’ command. And since Thomas was one of Jesus’ spiritual brothers it is reasonable to assume that he was informed what Jesus said.

We do well to appreciate that at no time did Jesus ever claim to be God. Furthermore, there is no instance where any of his disciples gave any indication that they thought he was God. No, on every occasion Jesus, as well as his apostles, consistently declared that he was the Son of God.

So, why did Thomas say what he did?

In the same thing 20th chapter the account says that Jesus appeared to his disciples on an occasion when Thomas was not present. But when his fellow apostles told him about their encounter with Christ Thomas declared that he would never believe that Jesus had been resurrected unless he could personally touch the wounds that he knew Jesus had suffered during his death. 

So, it was about a week later that Jesus appeared to the apostles again – suddenly appearing in a room with the door locked.  A supernatural display such as Jesus demonstrated would shake and astonish anyone. But Jesus did so for the express purpose of addressing his particular apostle’s disbelief. After approaching Thomas and telling him to feel the wounds and stop doubting, the astonished disciple then exclaimed: “my Lord and my God.”

But in response Jesus gave no indication that he thought Thomas was declaring him to be God. Jesus merely said to him in reply: “Because you have seen me, have you believed? Happy are those who have not seen and yet believe.”

The Trinitarian assumes that because Jesus did not correct Thomas he must be God. But that is merely an assumption – an unwarranted assumption. It fails to take into consideration that Jesus may not have understood Thomas to be proclaiming him to be God in the same sense that Trinitarians suppose. After all, Jesus was there. We were not. Had Jesus understood Thomas to saying he thought Jesus was his God in the same way Jesus said the Father was his, no doubt he would have corrected the apostle, again. But he did not.

It is possible that Thomas was referring to Jesus as “my Lord” AND the Father as “my God.” After all, it is very common for people to say “my God!” as an exclamation of surprise or astonishment. And Thomas had just seen a sight that no human living in our time has ever seen!

Or, because during the three years that Jesus was with the apostles before his death he frequently spoke of having been with God and having seen God and been sent down to earth to speak for God, even judging for God and extending forgiveness for God, Thomas may have intended to acknowledge Jesus’ oneness with God.

Either way, because Jesus did not correct Thomas is no indication that Jesus is God. Quite the contrary. Because Jesus did not correct the apostle it is proof that Jesus did not understand Thomas to be expressing his believe that Jesus was Almighty God.

 The very next verse in the 20th chapter of John goes on to state: To be sure, Jesus also performed many other signs before the disciples, which are not written down in this scroll. But these have been written down so that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and because of believing, you may have life by means of his name.”

 The apostle John was no doubt in the room when Thomas exclaimed  “my Lord and my God” and apparently he did not understand Thomas to be exclaiming that Jesus was THE God either. Since the apostle John concluded by saying they believed Jesus to be the Messiah – the Christ – the son of God, that is obviously what Jesus understood Thomas to believe as well. 

Ironically the multitudes of churchgoers who imagine themselves to be true believers really do not believe that Jesus is the Son of God.

2016-12-08T15:11:15+00:00 August 26th, 2015|Answers|4 Comments
  • Merton

    I’ve been meaning to comment on this for awhile so here goes

    1. First of all the greek definitely refers to two people. ‘The lord of me and the God of me’ is the correct translation. If Thomas wanted to imply he was applying these two titles lord and God to Jesus alone he would have used a different construction. You’ll have to do your own research to validate what I’m saying as I’m no expert in the greek, but the information is out there.

    2. I’ll stick with the inspired conclusion of the apostle John who claims that these signs were written down for us to prove Jesus was the Son of God, Jesus was the Christ. Apparently trinitarians don’t want to agree with his conclusion of John 20.

    3. Look at the context of the gospel of John. It’s all about seeing and believing. How many times did Jesus say to see him was to see the Father. To put faith in Jesus was to put faith in him who sent him. To listen to Jesus was to listen to the Father because whatever Jesus spoke it was just as the Father had told him. Jesus says these things in John 12. Now check John 14

    verse 7 – ‘if you men had known me, you would also have known my Father, from this moment on you know him and have seen him’

    yet still the disciples just don’t get it

    verse 8 – ‘Philip said to him:’Lord how us the Father, and it is enough for us.’

    Seeing and believing. To see Jesus was not just to see 1 person, it was to see 2 people. The Son of God and the Father. The disciples at this point in John 14 can’t seem to grasp this -infact I don’t think they grasp it until John 20

    Let’s go to John 20. Thomas says unless he sees Jesus, he will not believe. Believe in what? Believe he’s been resurrected? sure. Believe that to see Jesus is to see the Father? according to the context of John, yes Thomas is still in this condition. And then there it is John 20:28 Thomas see’s the resurrected Jesus and finally realises that to see Jesus is to see the Father ‘The Lord of me and the God of me’. 2 people. The greek confirms this. Thomas is referring to 2 people in this statement. That’s why Jesus doesn’t correct him! Because Jesus realises that Thomas has realised that to see Jesus is to see the Father! To believe in Jesus is to believe in the Father.

    What trinitarians do is they have a preassigned belief that Jesus is God and then cherry pick passages out of the bible to justify their belief. Completely ignoring context, completely ignoring the message of the bible.

    I hope that was clear for everyone, I’m not the best at putting down on paper or screen what I’m trying to get across.

    • Kenna Greenough Smith

      You are 100% correct!!!

  • chas logue

    I really think that you should examine the Greek interlinear , because although it translates the God of me, which make one an object of God, I went into a several Translates and typed in the phrase, and in all occasions it came up as, my God. = Θεέ μου, vice versa.

    Θεέ μου = my God and, my God = Θεέ μου

  • Andres Felipe

    Hace poco hable con un señor sobre este tema y mi razonamiento lo dirigí hacia el pasaje donde Jesús SÍ corrige a un hombre por llamarlo “bueno “. Porque corregirá a uno y al otro no ? Es lógico pensar que Jesús no creía que tomas estaba diciendo que Jesús era Dios,por eso no lo corrigió. Si me salio bien? Que opinan ?

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