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51. If the NWT is the most accurate word for word translation of the Bible, why does it translate the very simple Greek phrase “en autos” as “in him” in Col 2:7, Col 2:9, Mt 14:2, Mk 6:14, Lk 23:22, Jn 4:14, Acts 20:10, 1Cor 2:11, Eph 1:10, Col 1:19, Heb 10:38, 1Jn 2:15, 3:5, 3:15, etc. but translates this same Greek phrase as “by means of him” in 2Cor 1:20, 5:21, and Col 2:10, “by relationship with him” in Col 2:11, “in his case” in 2Cor 1:19, 1Jn 2:8, 10, and “in union with him” in Jn 14:11, 2Cor 13:5, Eph 1:4, Phil 3:9, Col 2:6, 2Thess 1:12, 1Jn 1:5, 2:5, 2:27, 2:28, 3:6, 4:13, 4:15, and 4:16? See Gr-Engl Interlinear. What is the reason for the addition of words in these verses and for the inconsistency in translation of this very simple Greek phrase “en autos”? If the NWT was consistent and translated this very simple Greek phrase “en autos” as “in him” in all the above verses, how would they read? Is the WTS trying to obscure the point of the author that the Christian life consists of a supernatural relationship with Christ?

There are dozens of Bible translations, if only for the simple reason that there is more than one way to say the same thing. Translators are not bound by some universal law to always translate each word the same way every time it appears. No translation does that. Words have meaning according to their usage in each context.

As for the "supernatural relationship" you suppose the Watchtower is trying to obscure, it is more likely the case that the questioner is supposing that the Bible should support his notion of some sort of metaphysical, mystical Christ. We will leave that for the questioner to clarify.

52. Jn 1:3 says that Jesus created "ALL things". What does the word “all” mean to you? In Isa 44:24, God says that he "BY MYSELF” created the heavens and the earth and asks the question "Who was with me?" when the heavens and the earth were created. If what the WTS teaches about the nature of Christ is correct, how could God have been “by myself” when the heavens and the earth were created if Christ had been created first? If Jesus had been created by God, wouldn’t he have been with God when everything else was created? Likewise, if Jesus was a created being, then according to Jn 1:3, Jesus would have had to create himself. How would that have been possible?

While the questioner obviously possesses a thorough understanding of basic words like "all," he demonstrates a gross lack of spiritual comprehension.

The context of Isaiah has to do with Jehovah asserting his superiority over idol gods. Elsewhere, though, it is apparent that someone was with Jehovah in the beginning. John 1:1, in fact, reveals that an entity called "the Word" was with God in the beginning. And, of course, informed readers are aware of the invitation that God extended to a-then-unnamed personage when he said: "Let us make man in our image, according to our likeness." What do words like "us" and "our" mean to you? Obviously, Jehovah God was not muttering to himself. There was someone closely associated with Jehovah during creation. However, it was not the impotent false gods and idols that Jehovah was denouncing in Isaiah. The Scriptures reveal that the someone whom God referred to as being in his own likeness is none other than Christ.

53. If Christ was created by God and was the wisdom of God (Prov 8:1-4, 12, 22-31), then before Jesus would have been created, God would have had to have been without wisdom. How is it possible that God could have ever been without wisdom? In Prov 8:2, the feminine form of the Hebrew verb “natsab” is used. This can only be translated as “SHE stands”. Similarly, in Prov 8:3, the feminine form of the Hebrew verb “ranan” is used. This can only be translated as “SHE cries”. If the NWT is the most accurate word for word translation of the Bible, why does it use the neuter pronoun “it” in these verses when the feminine pronoun “she” is called for? How could Christ be the wisdom of God in Prov 8, if the feminine form of the verbs are used? In addition, why does the NWT use the neuter pronoun “it” in Prov 8:2-3, when wisdom is called “sister” in Prov 7:4 and “she” in Prov 9:4?

Jesus once said that "wisdom is proved righteous by works." Or in other words, wisdom is judged by what it produces. Reasoning on that principle, it should be self-evident that before God engaged in any creative work there would have been no basis for gauging God's wisdom. Not only that, but obviously before creation there were no intelligent minds to even observe and judge the works of God—so in that sense wisdom did not exist because there was no one to appreciate the wisdom God possessed. As the Firstborn of all creatures, Jesus became the very personification of God's inherent wisdom.  Paul wrote at Colossians 2:3, saying that all the treasures of God's wisdom and knowledge had been carefully concealed by God in Christ.

As for feminine and neuter pronouns, wisdom is a quality not an actual person, therefore, even though wisdom is personified as a person, it is still a thing and as such it is proper to refer to a thing as "it."

54. The Bible says that: The heavens are the work of God’s hands (Ps 102:25), the heavens are the work of Jesus’ hand (Heb 1:10); God laid the foundations of the earth (Isa 48:13), Jesus laid the foundations of the earth (Heb 1:10); God is our judge (Ps 50:6, Eccl 12:14, 1Chron 16:33), Jesus is our judge (2Tim 4:1, Rev 20:12); God is the temple of the New Jerusalem (Rev 21:22), Jesus (the Lamb) is the temple of the New Jerusalem (Rev 21:22); God is the alpha and omega (Rev 1:8), Jesus is the alpha and omega (Rev 22:13); God is the first and last (Isa 44:6, 48:12), Jesus is the first and last (Rev 22:13); God is the beginning and the end (Rev 21:6), Jesus is the beginning and the end (Rev 22:13); Only God can forgive sins (Lk 5:21), Jesus forgives sins (Lk 5:20); God is our hope (Ps 71:5), Jesus is our hope (1Tim 1:1); God is eternal (Deut 33:27), Jesus is eternal (Isa 9:6, Heb 1:10-11); God will come with all the holy ones (Zech 14:5), Jesus will come with all the holy ones (1Thess 3:13); Only God is our savior (Isa 43:11), Jesus is our savior (Tit 2:13, 2Pet 1:1); God is the creator of the universe (Isa 44:24, Jer 27:5), Jesus is the creator of the universe (Jn 1:3); To God, every knee will bow and every tongue confess (Isa 45:22-23), to Jesus, every knee will bow and every tongue confess (Phil 2:10-11); God is the same and his years will have no end (Ps 102:27), Jesus is the same and his years will have no end (Heb 1:12); God is immutable (Mal 3:6), Jesus is immutable (Heb 13:8); God is over all (Ps 97:9), Jesus is over all (Jn 3:31); the spirit of God dwells in us (Rom 8:9), the spirit of Jesus dwells in us (Gal 4:6); God is a stone of offense and a stumbling block (Isa 8:14), Jesus is a stone of offense and a stumbling block (1Pet 2:8); God was valued at 30 pieces of silver (Zech 11:12-13), Jesus was valued at 30 pieces of silver (Mt 26:14-16); God is our shepherd (Ps 23:1), Jesus is our shepherd (Jn 10:11, 1Pet 5:4, Heb 13:20); God is Mighty God (Isa 10:21), Jesus is Mighty God (Isa 9:6); God is Lord of Lords (Deut 10:17, Ps 136:3), Jesus is Lord of Lords (Rev 17:14); God is our only Rock (Isa 44:8, Ps 18:2, 94:22), Jesus is our rock (1 Cor 10:4); God is our owner (Isa 54:5), Jesus is our only owner (Jude 4); No one can snatch us out of God’s hand (Deut 32:39), no one can snatch us out of Jesus’ hand (Jn 10:28); God is the horn of salvation (2Sam 22:3), Jesus is the horn of salvation (Lk 1:68-9); God renders according to our works (Ps 62:12), Jesus renders according to our works (Mt 16:27, Rev 22:12); God loves and corrects (Prov 3:12), Jesus loves and corrects (Rev 3:19); God’s words will stand forever (Isa 40:8), Jesus’ words will stand forever (Mt 24:35); God is the eternal light (Isa 60:19), Jesus is the eternal light (Jn 8:12, Rev 21:23); God seeks to save the lost (Ezek 34:16), Jesus seeks to save the lost (Lk 19:10); Paul is a slave of God (Tit 1:1), Paul is a slave of Jesus (Rom 1:1) even though no man can slave for two masters (Mt 6:24); God raised Jesus from the dead (Gal 1:1), Jesus raised himself from the dead (Jn 2:19-21); God is our guide (Ps 48:14), Jesus is our guide (Lk 1:79); God is our deliverer (Ps 70:5, 2Sam 22:2), Jesus is our deliverer (Rom 11:26); God is called God (Isa 44:8), Jesus is called God (Isa 9:6, Jn 20:28); God is the King of Israel (Isa 44:6), Jesus is the King of Israel (Mt 27:42, Jn 1:49). Since the Bible does not contradict itself, how can all these things be true if Jesus is not God?

55. In Col 2:8, Paul condemns the “traditions of men” and in Mt 15:6, Jesus condemns the “tradition” of the Pharisees that makes the “word of God invalid”, since their traditions were making null and void the commandment to “Honor your father and mother” (Mt 15:4). However, in 2Thess 2:15, the Bible commands us to “stand firm and maintain your hold on the TRADITIONS that you were taught”, in 2Thess 3:6 we are told of “the TRADITION you received from us”, and 1Cor 11:2 says that the Corinthians are “holding fast to the TRADITIONS just as I handed [them] on to you.” By definition, the word “tradition” refers to the unwritten teachings that have been handed down by word of mouth from one generation to the next. See also 2Tim 2:2, 1Cor 11:2, 1Thess 2:13, 1Cor 11:23, 1Cor 15:3, and 1Tim 6:20-21. Since the WTS claims that the Bible is its “supreme authority”, then in accordance with biblical commands, what “traditions” do Witnesses maintain?

56. Does the WTS claim "apostolic succession"? If so, can it trace its roots all the way back to Christ (Mt 16:18)? Who was it then, that "passed the torch of God's spirit" to C. T. Russell when he founded the organization? What was the name of this individual or individuals? Similarly, since the anointed believers as an organization are claimed to be God's collective "faithful and discreet slave" that alone guides people in their understanding of Scripture, and since this organization did not come into existence until the late-nineteenth century, does this mean God had no true representatives on earth for many, many centuries? If he did, who were they? What were their names? Can you name one Jehovah’s Witness who lived before 1800?

The Watchtower does not claim to have received any such grant of authority by means of apostolic succession. That is a Catholic doctrine, and an unscriptural one at that.

The apostles taught that they would not have any sort of successor. Paul stated at Acts 20:29: "I know that after my going away oppressive wolves will enter in among you and will not treat the flock with tenderness, and from among you yourselves men will rise and speak twisted things to draw away the disciples after themselves."

Paul also was inspired to reveal what some of the twisted teachings would be. At 1^ST Timothy 4:1-3, the apostle wrote: "However, the inspired utterance says definitely that in later periods of time some will fall away from the faith, paying attention to misleading inspired utterances and teachings of demons, by the hypocrisy of men who speak lies, marked in their conscience as with a branding iron; forbidding to marry, commanding to abstain from foods which God created to be partaken of with thanksgiving by those who have faith and accurately know the truth."

This prophecy points an accusing finger directly at the Vatican, which undeniably fits the prophecy's profile of teaching demonically-inspired commands, doctrines such as priestly celibacy and various dietary prohibitions, such as the sanction against eating meat on Friday, and other similar restrictions associated with Lent.

Rather than receiving authority through apostolic succession, Jehovah's Witnesses derive our authority directly from Christ by virtue of the fact that the core of the organization is composed of anointed Christians who are in a covenant with Jehovah through Christ, as were the original apostles and first Century Christians. Also, Christ foretold that he would directly appoint certain of his slaves over his household of servants and that they would eventually be judged as men put in charge.

57. The NWT translates Jn 1:1 as "... and the Word was WITH God, and the word was a god." How can the Word (Jesus) be "a god' if God says in Deut 32:39, "See now that I -- I am he, and there are NO gods together with me..."? Similarly, the Greek word “Theos” does not have an article in Jn 1:1c and the NWT supplies the indefinite article “a”, rendering it “and the Word was a god.” If the NWT is the most accurate word for word translation of the Bible, why doesn’t the NWT add the indefinite article “a” in other verses where the Greek word “Theos” does not have an article (eg Jn 1:6, 12, 13, 18, etc)? What is the reason for this inconsistency in translation? In addition, how could Jesus be “a god” since Jesus says that he came against those whom the prophet called “gods” (Jn 10:35)? Is there any such things as a “true” god? If the WTS teaches this, then doesn’t that make them polytheists?

The Greek language did not have an indefinite article—words such as "a" and "an." To distinguish between a general thing and a specific thing the Greek language used the definite article to denote something specific. In the verse in question, in the original language the definite article is used before one God but not before the god that John 1:1 calls the Word. So, it literally says that the Word was with the God and the word was God. English translations do not use the definite article before God—as if to say the God. But, in order to translate the idea embodied in the verse, it is necessary for translators to use some device to let the reader know that the original language made a vital distinction between the two Gods mentioned in that context. Most translations fail in that, although not all. Here is a link to an article that lists all the various translations that render John 1:1 differently than the common Trinitarian-produced Bibles.

To imply that the NWT was somehow tampering with the Bible by inserting the indefinite article "a" is deceptive. All translations liberally supply the indefinite article in various texts even though it does not appear in the original Greek text. They do it to make a distinction between Jehovah God and other gods—the same as the NWT does at John 1:1. For example, Acts 28:6 says in the NIV: "The people expected him to swell up or suddenly fall dead, but after waiting a long time and seeing nothing unusual happen to him, they changed their minds and said he was a god."

In the above verse, the translators inserted the indefinite article "a" even though it does not appear in the Greek. If they had not done so the reader would have been given the impression that the Maltese people thought Paul was God Almighty. That, of course, is not what they thought at all. But, the point is, that the translators were justified in adding that little letter "a" in order to make the verse conform to the meaning of the Greek.

The fact is that John 1:1 clearly refers to two separate entities, since the point of the verse is to show that the Word was with God; the honest translators are obligated to impart to the reader the distinction that exists in the Greek language. The NWT has done that.

But, rather than disputing over minute articles of the alphabet, truth seekers would do well to reason upon John 1:18, which says in the New American Standard: "No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him." Jesus is not a competing false god like the gods of the nations. Jesus is a god who is in complete harmony with Jehovah. According to John 1:18, Jesus is a god by virtue of the fact that Jehovah God, the Father, begot him, or fathered him. After all, isn't that what a father does? The fact that no one on earth has ever seen God rules out Jesus being God since Jesus was obviously seen by men.

It is noteworthy that for all the hand-waving and Bible-thumbing dogmatism of Trinitarians, Jesus never once claimed to be God—not once. Instead, he always said that he was God's Son. And John 1:1 agrees with all Scripture; that Jesus has been with God since the beginning—his beginning that is—the beginning of creation.

58. The WTS teaches that the 144,000 of Rev 7:4 and Rev 14:3 is to be taken literally. If these passages in scripture are to be taken literally, then the 144,000 are all literally male (Rev 14:4), Jewish (Rev 7:4-8), virgins (Rev 14:4). Was Charles Taze Russell a Jewish virgin? Are all women excluded from this number? Are any of the other 144,000 people included in this number Jewish virgins? If not, then how can this passage, including the number 144,000, be taken literally? What justification is there for switching methods of interpretation from literal, in the case of Rev 7:4 and 14:3, to figurative in the very next verse(s)?

Discerning readers of the Bible recognize that the Scriptures are not always speaking in strictly literal terms; nor are they always to be understood as being symbolic and allegorical. The unreasonable mind, however, insists that if the 144,000 are literal, than all the prophecy of Revelation must be taken literally too. However, it is foolish to approach the Bible in such a manner. It is not a matter of switching interpretations. It is a matter of intelligently deciphering God's Word, which Jehovah's Witnesses have done, in this instance.

The 144,000 are the spiritual organization that is built upon the 12 apostles. Are the 12 apostles symbolic? How about the 12 tribes that descended from the 12 sons of Israel? The millions of churchgoers who have been indoctrinated with the idea that it is their birthright to go to heaven have very little comprehension what the kingdom of God actually is. According to Revelation, the 144,000 are Christians who are bought from all tribes and nationalities and they are to be kings and priests and rule with Christ for the 1,000 years. That is what the kingdom of God is.

59. Jesus uses the phrase "Truly I say to you," over 50 times in the Bible. In the NWT, the comma is placed after the word "you" every time except in Lk 23:43, where the comma is placed after the word "today". Why is the comma placed after "today" instead of after "you" in this verse? According to Strong’s Greek Dictionary, the word “paradise” (Gr-paradeisos – Strong’s #3857) refers to “the part of Hades which was thought by the later Jews to be the abode of the souls of the pious until the resurrection”, where Jesus would go in order to preach after his death (1Pet 3:18-20, 1Pet 4:5-6). By using this word instead of the Greek word for “heaven”, wasn’t Luke showing that Jesus was not referring to heaven when he made this statement? If the translation of this phrase in Lk 23:43 was consistent with the translation of this phrase in every other verse in which it appears (see concordance), and the comma was placed after the word "you", how would this verse read?

Jesus may have frequently used the expression "truly I tell you," but he only once used the expression "truly I tell you today." The Questioner implies that the NWT is inconsistent in punctuating that phrase, when the truth of the matter is that Jesus only used that exact phrase on one occasion. The questioner appears to be either ignorant of his subject or intentionally deceptive.

As regards the big comma issue: There was no punctuation in the original, so it is up to the translator to determine how best to make sense of it. Since a doctrinal matter involving the nature of the soul and the resurrection is involved, the NWT translators placed the comma after "today," so as to read: "Truly I tell you today, You will be with me in Paradise." Other translations, though, place the comma after the first "you," which causes the sentence to read as if Christ was promising the impaled evildoer that he would be in paradise that very day. Which translation is correct? The NWT is correct because Christ simply could not have been in paradise that day, nor the day after that, nor the day after that. Jesus died that day. And just like Jonah was in the belly of the huge fish for three days, so Jesus was entombed in the earth for parts of three days. Some translations even say that Jesus was in hell. Most reasonable people would likely be in agreement that there is a big difference between paradise and hell.

Since Jesus is the firstborn from the dead, it is impossible that the impaled evildoer was resurrected to paradise before Christ came back to life. Also, Jesus said that "unless anyone is born from water and spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God." That means that a person must be baptized, not only in water, but in the anointing of the holy spirit. However, the anointing spirit was not made available until after Christ returned to heaven—after the thief had died. The truth is: the evildoer is still dead, waiting to hear the voice of the Son of man calling him to life in paradise, just as Jesus promised him that day.

As for Strong's definition: Jewish misconceptions of paradise should have no bearing on the Bible's use of that term. As an example, in 2 Corinthians the 11^th chapter, Paul referred to being caught away to what he called the "third heaven" and "paradise." Rather than link paradise with hell, Paul associated paradise with heaven. The Jews could not have been more wrong. But, even at that, Christ did not ascend to any third heaven or spiritual paradise on the day of his death.

60. What are the names of the men on the New World Bible Translation Committee who supposedly translated the original Hebrew and Greek into English for the NWT? What are their credentials that would qualify them to produce a Bible translation? Why does the WTS withhold the names of these people so that no one can see what their qualifications are?